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Why is the principal energy of an electron lower for excited electrons in a higher energy state?
Energy required to remove an electron from HeCan a battery powered by iron and air really provide a feasible power source for automobiles?Calculating the ionization energy for hydrogenLower an electron energy level by pressureIf d-electrons are such poor shielders, why do trends increase more gradually across the d-block than the s or p-block?Wavelength of an electron removed from an atom of hydrogenWhy are higher-energy bonds preferred over lower-energy ones?State symbol for electronIonisation energy is lower for higher energy shell?What is the maximum number of emission lines when the excited electron of a H atom in n = 6 drops to ground state?
$begingroup$
Several places state the 'principal energy of an electron' can be calculated as such:
$$E = frac2π^2mZ^2e^4n^2h^2$$
Another equation I found was:
$$E = -fracE_0n^2,$$
where $$E_0 = pu13.6 eV~(pu1 eV = pu1.602e-19 J)$$
As seen in these equations, the greater the principal number ($n$) of the electron, the lower the principal energy $E$ of this electron.
However, the principal number $n$ is associated with higher energy states. The farther from the electron, the higher the energy state of this electron.
I seem to be fumbling the concept of 'principal energy of an electron.' What is the difference between the 'energy state' associated with the principal number, and the 'principal energy' of an electron? What exactly do the 'principal energy' equations mean? I read somewhere that it would be the energy it would take to "unbind" or ionize the electron, which would make sense, but I have not seen 'principal energy' explained as the ionization energy of an electron anywhere else.
energy electrons
New contributor
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Several places state the 'principal energy of an electron' can be calculated as such:
$$E = frac2π^2mZ^2e^4n^2h^2$$
Another equation I found was:
$$E = -fracE_0n^2,$$
where $$E_0 = pu13.6 eV~(pu1 eV = pu1.602e-19 J)$$
As seen in these equations, the greater the principal number ($n$) of the electron, the lower the principal energy $E$ of this electron.
However, the principal number $n$ is associated with higher energy states. The farther from the electron, the higher the energy state of this electron.
I seem to be fumbling the concept of 'principal energy of an electron.' What is the difference between the 'energy state' associated with the principal number, and the 'principal energy' of an electron? What exactly do the 'principal energy' equations mean? I read somewhere that it would be the energy it would take to "unbind" or ionize the electron, which would make sense, but I have not seen 'principal energy' explained as the ionization energy of an electron anywhere else.
energy electrons
New contributor
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Several places state the 'principal energy of an electron' can be calculated as such:
$$E = frac2π^2mZ^2e^4n^2h^2$$
Another equation I found was:
$$E = -fracE_0n^2,$$
where $$E_0 = pu13.6 eV~(pu1 eV = pu1.602e-19 J)$$
As seen in these equations, the greater the principal number ($n$) of the electron, the lower the principal energy $E$ of this electron.
However, the principal number $n$ is associated with higher energy states. The farther from the electron, the higher the energy state of this electron.
I seem to be fumbling the concept of 'principal energy of an electron.' What is the difference between the 'energy state' associated with the principal number, and the 'principal energy' of an electron? What exactly do the 'principal energy' equations mean? I read somewhere that it would be the energy it would take to "unbind" or ionize the electron, which would make sense, but I have not seen 'principal energy' explained as the ionization energy of an electron anywhere else.
energy electrons
New contributor
$endgroup$
Several places state the 'principal energy of an electron' can be calculated as such:
$$E = frac2π^2mZ^2e^4n^2h^2$$
Another equation I found was:
$$E = -fracE_0n^2,$$
where $$E_0 = pu13.6 eV~(pu1 eV = pu1.602e-19 J)$$
As seen in these equations, the greater the principal number ($n$) of the electron, the lower the principal energy $E$ of this electron.
However, the principal number $n$ is associated with higher energy states. The farther from the electron, the higher the energy state of this electron.
I seem to be fumbling the concept of 'principal energy of an electron.' What is the difference between the 'energy state' associated with the principal number, and the 'principal energy' of an electron? What exactly do the 'principal energy' equations mean? I read somewhere that it would be the energy it would take to "unbind" or ionize the electron, which would make sense, but I have not seen 'principal energy' explained as the ionization energy of an electron anywhere else.
energy electrons
energy electrons
New contributor
New contributor
edited yesterday
andselisk
18k656119
18k656119
New contributor
asked yesterday
chompionchompion
444
444
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New contributor
add a comment |
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Notice that when $n=1$, we have,
$$
E=-E_0=-13.6~mathrmeV
$$
which is the negative of the energy required to remove an electron from the ground state of a hydrogen atom.
If we increase $n$ to say $n=2$, then we have,
$$
E=-E_0/4=-3.4~mathrmeV
$$
which is a larger number than for $n=1$. Don't let the minus sign confuse you.
This is a very common source of confusion when these equations are seen for the first time. The confusion often stems from the fact that we are free to choose the zero of energy wherever we would like. So, in this case, zero energy corresponds to the case where the electron and nucleus are infinitely separated which is the $nrightarrowinfty$ limit. So, more negative numbers correspond to lower energies and more tightly bound electrons.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
My first exposure to this equation was the first, and read the relation between energy and quantum number was inverse. I don't quite see where the minus would come in the 1st equation, but do see it in others. Thank you
$endgroup$
– chompion
yesterday
$begingroup$
@jheindel your current formulation implies that you need negative amount of energy (i.e. $-E_0$) to ionize a hydrogen atom.
$endgroup$
– Ruslan
yesterday
$begingroup$
There's a similar thing for gravitational potential energy. If we set the GPE at infinity to zero, then the GPE for finite $r$ is proportional to $frac -1 r$
$endgroup$
– Acccumulation
yesterday
$begingroup$
@Ruslan currently it says the energy of an electron in a hydrogen atom is $-E_0$ which means the energy required to ionize the hydrogen atom is $+E_0$.
$endgroup$
– jheindel
yesterday
$begingroup$
Citing your first sentence: "we have, $E=-E_0$ which is the energy required to remove an electron...". So, $E$ is the energy required, and, since $E_0>0$, this energy required is $E<0$.
$endgroup$
– Ruslan
23 hours ago
|
show 1 more comment
Your Answer
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1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Notice that when $n=1$, we have,
$$
E=-E_0=-13.6~mathrmeV
$$
which is the negative of the energy required to remove an electron from the ground state of a hydrogen atom.
If we increase $n$ to say $n=2$, then we have,
$$
E=-E_0/4=-3.4~mathrmeV
$$
which is a larger number than for $n=1$. Don't let the minus sign confuse you.
This is a very common source of confusion when these equations are seen for the first time. The confusion often stems from the fact that we are free to choose the zero of energy wherever we would like. So, in this case, zero energy corresponds to the case where the electron and nucleus are infinitely separated which is the $nrightarrowinfty$ limit. So, more negative numbers correspond to lower energies and more tightly bound electrons.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
My first exposure to this equation was the first, and read the relation between energy and quantum number was inverse. I don't quite see where the minus would come in the 1st equation, but do see it in others. Thank you
$endgroup$
– chompion
yesterday
$begingroup$
@jheindel your current formulation implies that you need negative amount of energy (i.e. $-E_0$) to ionize a hydrogen atom.
$endgroup$
– Ruslan
yesterday
$begingroup$
There's a similar thing for gravitational potential energy. If we set the GPE at infinity to zero, then the GPE for finite $r$ is proportional to $frac -1 r$
$endgroup$
– Acccumulation
yesterday
$begingroup$
@Ruslan currently it says the energy of an electron in a hydrogen atom is $-E_0$ which means the energy required to ionize the hydrogen atom is $+E_0$.
$endgroup$
– jheindel
yesterday
$begingroup$
Citing your first sentence: "we have, $E=-E_0$ which is the energy required to remove an electron...". So, $E$ is the energy required, and, since $E_0>0$, this energy required is $E<0$.
$endgroup$
– Ruslan
23 hours ago
|
show 1 more comment
$begingroup$
Notice that when $n=1$, we have,
$$
E=-E_0=-13.6~mathrmeV
$$
which is the negative of the energy required to remove an electron from the ground state of a hydrogen atom.
If we increase $n$ to say $n=2$, then we have,
$$
E=-E_0/4=-3.4~mathrmeV
$$
which is a larger number than for $n=1$. Don't let the minus sign confuse you.
This is a very common source of confusion when these equations are seen for the first time. The confusion often stems from the fact that we are free to choose the zero of energy wherever we would like. So, in this case, zero energy corresponds to the case where the electron and nucleus are infinitely separated which is the $nrightarrowinfty$ limit. So, more negative numbers correspond to lower energies and more tightly bound electrons.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
My first exposure to this equation was the first, and read the relation between energy and quantum number was inverse. I don't quite see where the minus would come in the 1st equation, but do see it in others. Thank you
$endgroup$
– chompion
yesterday
$begingroup$
@jheindel your current formulation implies that you need negative amount of energy (i.e. $-E_0$) to ionize a hydrogen atom.
$endgroup$
– Ruslan
yesterday
$begingroup$
There's a similar thing for gravitational potential energy. If we set the GPE at infinity to zero, then the GPE for finite $r$ is proportional to $frac -1 r$
$endgroup$
– Acccumulation
yesterday
$begingroup$
@Ruslan currently it says the energy of an electron in a hydrogen atom is $-E_0$ which means the energy required to ionize the hydrogen atom is $+E_0$.
$endgroup$
– jheindel
yesterday
$begingroup$
Citing your first sentence: "we have, $E=-E_0$ which is the energy required to remove an electron...". So, $E$ is the energy required, and, since $E_0>0$, this energy required is $E<0$.
$endgroup$
– Ruslan
23 hours ago
|
show 1 more comment
$begingroup$
Notice that when $n=1$, we have,
$$
E=-E_0=-13.6~mathrmeV
$$
which is the negative of the energy required to remove an electron from the ground state of a hydrogen atom.
If we increase $n$ to say $n=2$, then we have,
$$
E=-E_0/4=-3.4~mathrmeV
$$
which is a larger number than for $n=1$. Don't let the minus sign confuse you.
This is a very common source of confusion when these equations are seen for the first time. The confusion often stems from the fact that we are free to choose the zero of energy wherever we would like. So, in this case, zero energy corresponds to the case where the electron and nucleus are infinitely separated which is the $nrightarrowinfty$ limit. So, more negative numbers correspond to lower energies and more tightly bound electrons.
$endgroup$
Notice that when $n=1$, we have,
$$
E=-E_0=-13.6~mathrmeV
$$
which is the negative of the energy required to remove an electron from the ground state of a hydrogen atom.
If we increase $n$ to say $n=2$, then we have,
$$
E=-E_0/4=-3.4~mathrmeV
$$
which is a larger number than for $n=1$. Don't let the minus sign confuse you.
This is a very common source of confusion when these equations are seen for the first time. The confusion often stems from the fact that we are free to choose the zero of energy wherever we would like. So, in this case, zero energy corresponds to the case where the electron and nucleus are infinitely separated which is the $nrightarrowinfty$ limit. So, more negative numbers correspond to lower energies and more tightly bound electrons.
edited 21 hours ago
answered yesterday
jheindeljheindel
8,1592453
8,1592453
$begingroup$
My first exposure to this equation was the first, and read the relation between energy and quantum number was inverse. I don't quite see where the minus would come in the 1st equation, but do see it in others. Thank you
$endgroup$
– chompion
yesterday
$begingroup$
@jheindel your current formulation implies that you need negative amount of energy (i.e. $-E_0$) to ionize a hydrogen atom.
$endgroup$
– Ruslan
yesterday
$begingroup$
There's a similar thing for gravitational potential energy. If we set the GPE at infinity to zero, then the GPE for finite $r$ is proportional to $frac -1 r$
$endgroup$
– Acccumulation
yesterday
$begingroup$
@Ruslan currently it says the energy of an electron in a hydrogen atom is $-E_0$ which means the energy required to ionize the hydrogen atom is $+E_0$.
$endgroup$
– jheindel
yesterday
$begingroup$
Citing your first sentence: "we have, $E=-E_0$ which is the energy required to remove an electron...". So, $E$ is the energy required, and, since $E_0>0$, this energy required is $E<0$.
$endgroup$
– Ruslan
23 hours ago
|
show 1 more comment
$begingroup$
My first exposure to this equation was the first, and read the relation between energy and quantum number was inverse. I don't quite see where the minus would come in the 1st equation, but do see it in others. Thank you
$endgroup$
– chompion
yesterday
$begingroup$
@jheindel your current formulation implies that you need negative amount of energy (i.e. $-E_0$) to ionize a hydrogen atom.
$endgroup$
– Ruslan
yesterday
$begingroup$
There's a similar thing for gravitational potential energy. If we set the GPE at infinity to zero, then the GPE for finite $r$ is proportional to $frac -1 r$
$endgroup$
– Acccumulation
yesterday
$begingroup$
@Ruslan currently it says the energy of an electron in a hydrogen atom is $-E_0$ which means the energy required to ionize the hydrogen atom is $+E_0$.
$endgroup$
– jheindel
yesterday
$begingroup$
Citing your first sentence: "we have, $E=-E_0$ which is the energy required to remove an electron...". So, $E$ is the energy required, and, since $E_0>0$, this energy required is $E<0$.
$endgroup$
– Ruslan
23 hours ago
$begingroup$
My first exposure to this equation was the first, and read the relation between energy and quantum number was inverse. I don't quite see where the minus would come in the 1st equation, but do see it in others. Thank you
$endgroup$
– chompion
yesterday
$begingroup$
My first exposure to this equation was the first, and read the relation between energy and quantum number was inverse. I don't quite see where the minus would come in the 1st equation, but do see it in others. Thank you
$endgroup$
– chompion
yesterday
$begingroup$
@jheindel your current formulation implies that you need negative amount of energy (i.e. $-E_0$) to ionize a hydrogen atom.
$endgroup$
– Ruslan
yesterday
$begingroup$
@jheindel your current formulation implies that you need negative amount of energy (i.e. $-E_0$) to ionize a hydrogen atom.
$endgroup$
– Ruslan
yesterday
$begingroup$
There's a similar thing for gravitational potential energy. If we set the GPE at infinity to zero, then the GPE for finite $r$ is proportional to $frac -1 r$
$endgroup$
– Acccumulation
yesterday
$begingroup$
There's a similar thing for gravitational potential energy. If we set the GPE at infinity to zero, then the GPE for finite $r$ is proportional to $frac -1 r$
$endgroup$
– Acccumulation
yesterday
$begingroup$
@Ruslan currently it says the energy of an electron in a hydrogen atom is $-E_0$ which means the energy required to ionize the hydrogen atom is $+E_0$.
$endgroup$
– jheindel
yesterday
$begingroup$
@Ruslan currently it says the energy of an electron in a hydrogen atom is $-E_0$ which means the energy required to ionize the hydrogen atom is $+E_0$.
$endgroup$
– jheindel
yesterday
$begingroup$
Citing your first sentence: "we have, $E=-E_0$ which is the energy required to remove an electron...". So, $E$ is the energy required, and, since $E_0>0$, this energy required is $E<0$.
$endgroup$
– Ruslan
23 hours ago
$begingroup$
Citing your first sentence: "we have, $E=-E_0$ which is the energy required to remove an electron...". So, $E$ is the energy required, and, since $E_0>0$, this energy required is $E<0$.
$endgroup$
– Ruslan
23 hours ago
|
show 1 more comment
chompion is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
chompion is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
chompion is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
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