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Eigenvalues of a real orthogonal matrix.


Do real matrices always have real eigenvalues?Generalized eigenvalue problem; why do real eigenvalues exist?If $A$ is a real symmetric matrix, then $A$ has real eigenvalues.Block diagonal form of elements of SO(n)Eigenvectors and eigenvalues of Hessian matrixproperties of, 3x3 matrix, determinant 1, real eigenvaluesWhy eigenvalues of an orthogonal matrix made with QR decomposition include -1?Determine the matrix of the orthogonal projectionLet $A in mathbbC^n times n$ be hermitian. Prove all eigenvalues of $A$ are real…Existence condition of Real Eigenvalues for Non-Symmetric Real Matrix













4












$begingroup$


Let $A$ be a real orthogonal matrix. Then $A^text T A = I.$ Let $lambda in Bbb C$ be an eigenvalue of $A$ corresponding to the eigenvector $X in Bbb C^n.$ Then we have





$$beginalign* X^text T A^text T A X = X^text T X. \ implies (AX)^text T AX & = X^text T X. \ implies (lambda X)^text T lambda X & = X^text T X. \ implies lambda^2 X^text T X & = X^text T X. \ implies (lambda^2 - 1) X^text T X & = 0. endalign*$$





Since $X$ is an eigenvector $X neq 0.$ Therefore $^2 = X^text T X neq 0.$ Hence we must have $lambda^2 - 1 = 0$ i.e. $lambda^2 = 1.$ So $lambda = pm 1.$



So according to my argument above it follows that eigenvalues of a real orthogonal matrix are $pm 1.$ But I think that I am wrong as I know that the eigenvalues of an orthogonal matrix are unit modulus i.e. they lie on the unit circle.



What's going wrong in my argument above. Please help me in this regard.



Thank you very much for your valuable time.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$
















    4












    $begingroup$


    Let $A$ be a real orthogonal matrix. Then $A^text T A = I.$ Let $lambda in Bbb C$ be an eigenvalue of $A$ corresponding to the eigenvector $X in Bbb C^n.$ Then we have





    $$beginalign* X^text T A^text T A X = X^text T X. \ implies (AX)^text T AX & = X^text T X. \ implies (lambda X)^text T lambda X & = X^text T X. \ implies lambda^2 X^text T X & = X^text T X. \ implies (lambda^2 - 1) X^text T X & = 0. endalign*$$





    Since $X$ is an eigenvector $X neq 0.$ Therefore $^2 = X^text T X neq 0.$ Hence we must have $lambda^2 - 1 = 0$ i.e. $lambda^2 = 1.$ So $lambda = pm 1.$



    So according to my argument above it follows that eigenvalues of a real orthogonal matrix are $pm 1.$ But I think that I am wrong as I know that the eigenvalues of an orthogonal matrix are unit modulus i.e. they lie on the unit circle.



    What's going wrong in my argument above. Please help me in this regard.



    Thank you very much for your valuable time.










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$














      4












      4








      4


      0



      $begingroup$


      Let $A$ be a real orthogonal matrix. Then $A^text T A = I.$ Let $lambda in Bbb C$ be an eigenvalue of $A$ corresponding to the eigenvector $X in Bbb C^n.$ Then we have





      $$beginalign* X^text T A^text T A X = X^text T X. \ implies (AX)^text T AX & = X^text T X. \ implies (lambda X)^text T lambda X & = X^text T X. \ implies lambda^2 X^text T X & = X^text T X. \ implies (lambda^2 - 1) X^text T X & = 0. endalign*$$





      Since $X$ is an eigenvector $X neq 0.$ Therefore $^2 = X^text T X neq 0.$ Hence we must have $lambda^2 - 1 = 0$ i.e. $lambda^2 = 1.$ So $lambda = pm 1.$



      So according to my argument above it follows that eigenvalues of a real orthogonal matrix are $pm 1.$ But I think that I am wrong as I know that the eigenvalues of an orthogonal matrix are unit modulus i.e. they lie on the unit circle.



      What's going wrong in my argument above. Please help me in this regard.



      Thank you very much for your valuable time.










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      Let $A$ be a real orthogonal matrix. Then $A^text T A = I.$ Let $lambda in Bbb C$ be an eigenvalue of $A$ corresponding to the eigenvector $X in Bbb C^n.$ Then we have





      $$beginalign* X^text T A^text T A X = X^text T X. \ implies (AX)^text T AX & = X^text T X. \ implies (lambda X)^text T lambda X & = X^text T X. \ implies lambda^2 X^text T X & = X^text T X. \ implies (lambda^2 - 1) X^text T X & = 0. endalign*$$





      Since $X$ is an eigenvector $X neq 0.$ Therefore $^2 = X^text T X neq 0.$ Hence we must have $lambda^2 - 1 = 0$ i.e. $lambda^2 = 1.$ So $lambda = pm 1.$



      So according to my argument above it follows that eigenvalues of a real orthogonal matrix are $pm 1.$ But I think that I am wrong as I know that the eigenvalues of an orthogonal matrix are unit modulus i.e. they lie on the unit circle.



      What's going wrong in my argument above. Please help me in this regard.



      Thank you very much for your valuable time.







      linear-algebra eigenvalues-eigenvectors orthogonal-matrices






      share|cite|improve this question















      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited 2 days ago









      Yanko

      8,2942830




      8,2942830










      asked 2 days ago









      math maniac.math maniac.

      1417




      1417




















          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          4












          $begingroup$

          The mistake is your assumption that $X^TXne0$. Consider a simple example:
          $$A=pmatrix0&1\-1&0.$$
          It is orthogonal, and its eigenvalues are $pm i$. One eigenvector is
          $$X=pmatrix1\i.$$
          It satisfies $X^TX=0$.



          However, replacing $X^T$ in your argument by $X^H$ (complex conjugate
          of transpose) will give you the correct conclusion that $|lambda|^2=1$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            how can Euclidean norm of non zero vector be zero?
            $endgroup$
            – math maniac.
            2 days ago






          • 2




            $begingroup$
            @mathmaniac. How can $1^2+i^2$ equal zero?
            $endgroup$
            – Lord Shark the Unknown
            2 days ago










          • $begingroup$
            I think the Euclidean norm of $X in Bbb C^n$ is $sqrt X^text T overline X text or sqrt overline X^text T X,$ not $sqrt X^text T X.$ Am I right?
            $endgroup$
            – math maniac.
            2 days ago







          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Which is same as $sqrt X^text HX,$ as you have rightly pointed out.
            $endgroup$
            – math maniac.
            2 days ago












          Your Answer





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          1 Answer
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          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

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          active

          oldest

          votes









          4












          $begingroup$

          The mistake is your assumption that $X^TXne0$. Consider a simple example:
          $$A=pmatrix0&1\-1&0.$$
          It is orthogonal, and its eigenvalues are $pm i$. One eigenvector is
          $$X=pmatrix1\i.$$
          It satisfies $X^TX=0$.



          However, replacing $X^T$ in your argument by $X^H$ (complex conjugate
          of transpose) will give you the correct conclusion that $|lambda|^2=1$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            how can Euclidean norm of non zero vector be zero?
            $endgroup$
            – math maniac.
            2 days ago






          • 2




            $begingroup$
            @mathmaniac. How can $1^2+i^2$ equal zero?
            $endgroup$
            – Lord Shark the Unknown
            2 days ago










          • $begingroup$
            I think the Euclidean norm of $X in Bbb C^n$ is $sqrt X^text T overline X text or sqrt overline X^text T X,$ not $sqrt X^text T X.$ Am I right?
            $endgroup$
            – math maniac.
            2 days ago







          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Which is same as $sqrt X^text HX,$ as you have rightly pointed out.
            $endgroup$
            – math maniac.
            2 days ago
















          4












          $begingroup$

          The mistake is your assumption that $X^TXne0$. Consider a simple example:
          $$A=pmatrix0&1\-1&0.$$
          It is orthogonal, and its eigenvalues are $pm i$. One eigenvector is
          $$X=pmatrix1\i.$$
          It satisfies $X^TX=0$.



          However, replacing $X^T$ in your argument by $X^H$ (complex conjugate
          of transpose) will give you the correct conclusion that $|lambda|^2=1$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            how can Euclidean norm of non zero vector be zero?
            $endgroup$
            – math maniac.
            2 days ago






          • 2




            $begingroup$
            @mathmaniac. How can $1^2+i^2$ equal zero?
            $endgroup$
            – Lord Shark the Unknown
            2 days ago










          • $begingroup$
            I think the Euclidean norm of $X in Bbb C^n$ is $sqrt X^text T overline X text or sqrt overline X^text T X,$ not $sqrt X^text T X.$ Am I right?
            $endgroup$
            – math maniac.
            2 days ago







          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Which is same as $sqrt X^text HX,$ as you have rightly pointed out.
            $endgroup$
            – math maniac.
            2 days ago














          4












          4








          4





          $begingroup$

          The mistake is your assumption that $X^TXne0$. Consider a simple example:
          $$A=pmatrix0&1\-1&0.$$
          It is orthogonal, and its eigenvalues are $pm i$. One eigenvector is
          $$X=pmatrix1\i.$$
          It satisfies $X^TX=0$.



          However, replacing $X^T$ in your argument by $X^H$ (complex conjugate
          of transpose) will give you the correct conclusion that $|lambda|^2=1$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          The mistake is your assumption that $X^TXne0$. Consider a simple example:
          $$A=pmatrix0&1\-1&0.$$
          It is orthogonal, and its eigenvalues are $pm i$. One eigenvector is
          $$X=pmatrix1\i.$$
          It satisfies $X^TX=0$.



          However, replacing $X^T$ in your argument by $X^H$ (complex conjugate
          of transpose) will give you the correct conclusion that $|lambda|^2=1$.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered 2 days ago









          Lord Shark the UnknownLord Shark the Unknown

          107k1162135




          107k1162135











          • $begingroup$
            how can Euclidean norm of non zero vector be zero?
            $endgroup$
            – math maniac.
            2 days ago






          • 2




            $begingroup$
            @mathmaniac. How can $1^2+i^2$ equal zero?
            $endgroup$
            – Lord Shark the Unknown
            2 days ago










          • $begingroup$
            I think the Euclidean norm of $X in Bbb C^n$ is $sqrt X^text T overline X text or sqrt overline X^text T X,$ not $sqrt X^text T X.$ Am I right?
            $endgroup$
            – math maniac.
            2 days ago







          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Which is same as $sqrt X^text HX,$ as you have rightly pointed out.
            $endgroup$
            – math maniac.
            2 days ago

















          • $begingroup$
            how can Euclidean norm of non zero vector be zero?
            $endgroup$
            – math maniac.
            2 days ago






          • 2




            $begingroup$
            @mathmaniac. How can $1^2+i^2$ equal zero?
            $endgroup$
            – Lord Shark the Unknown
            2 days ago










          • $begingroup$
            I think the Euclidean norm of $X in Bbb C^n$ is $sqrt X^text T overline X text or sqrt overline X^text T X,$ not $sqrt X^text T X.$ Am I right?
            $endgroup$
            – math maniac.
            2 days ago







          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Which is same as $sqrt X^text HX,$ as you have rightly pointed out.
            $endgroup$
            – math maniac.
            2 days ago
















          $begingroup$
          how can Euclidean norm of non zero vector be zero?
          $endgroup$
          – math maniac.
          2 days ago




          $begingroup$
          how can Euclidean norm of non zero vector be zero?
          $endgroup$
          – math maniac.
          2 days ago




          2




          2




          $begingroup$
          @mathmaniac. How can $1^2+i^2$ equal zero?
          $endgroup$
          – Lord Shark the Unknown
          2 days ago




          $begingroup$
          @mathmaniac. How can $1^2+i^2$ equal zero?
          $endgroup$
          – Lord Shark the Unknown
          2 days ago












          $begingroup$
          I think the Euclidean norm of $X in Bbb C^n$ is $sqrt X^text T overline X text or sqrt overline X^text T X,$ not $sqrt X^text T X.$ Am I right?
          $endgroup$
          – math maniac.
          2 days ago





          $begingroup$
          I think the Euclidean norm of $X in Bbb C^n$ is $sqrt X^text T overline X text or sqrt overline X^text T X,$ not $sqrt X^text T X.$ Am I right?
          $endgroup$
          – math maniac.
          2 days ago





          1




          1




          $begingroup$
          Which is same as $sqrt X^text HX,$ as you have rightly pointed out.
          $endgroup$
          – math maniac.
          2 days ago





          $begingroup$
          Which is same as $sqrt X^text HX,$ as you have rightly pointed out.
          $endgroup$
          – math maniac.
          2 days ago


















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