Sequence of Tenses: Translating the subjunctive The Next CEO of Stack OverflowHelp finding the use of the subjunctiveMemento quod <subjunctive>Does using quippe in a relative clause require conjunctive?What is the optative?Can a subjunctive verb ever be modified by οὐ? (Greek)“..so that others may live”, future subjunctive?Passive Subjunctive Translated as ActiveWhich adverbs of possibility and probability warrant the subjunctive?When to use cum + subjunctive and when cum + indicativeReflexive Pronouns & Indirect StatementsAccusative in genitive relative clause with verb finiebat
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Sequence of Tenses: Translating the subjunctive
The Next CEO of Stack OverflowHelp finding the use of the subjunctiveMemento quod <subjunctive>Does using quippe in a relative clause require conjunctive?What is the optative?Can a subjunctive verb ever be modified by οὐ? (Greek)“..so that others may live”, future subjunctive?Passive Subjunctive Translated as ActiveWhich adverbs of possibility and probability warrant the subjunctive?When to use cum + subjunctive and when cum + indicativeReflexive Pronouns & Indirect StatementsAccusative in genitive relative clause with verb finiebat
This is probably a pretty basic question, but I am new to Latin and am having trouble understanding the subjunctive.
The sentence "Pūgnāverō ut nautam superem" is translated to "I shall have fought in order that I may overcome the sailor" (according to my textbook). I understand that pūgnāverō is active, indicative, future perfect, first person, singular, which so far I would have believed to be translated as "I will have fought (already)." I am confused because my book uses the word "shall," which to me signals that it is subjunctive.
My questions are:
- Am I misunderstanding the way "shall" is used?
- Is this something that only occurs in clauses of purpose, i.e., is this occurring because "superem" is subjunctive?
There is a similar post here, but I feel it does not answer my question.
coniunctivus purpose-clause
asked 2 days ago
Kevin MillerKevin Miller
1334
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Kevin Miller is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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This is probably a pretty basic question, but I am new to Latin and am having trouble understanding the subjunctive.
The sentence "Pūgnāverō ut nautam superem" is translated to "I shall have fought in order that I may overcome the sailor" (according to my textbook). I understand that pūgnāverō is active, indicative, future perfect, first person, singular, which so far I would have believed to be translated as "I will have fought (already)." I am confused because my book uses the word "shall," which to me signals that it is subjunctive.
My questions are:
- Am I misunderstanding the way "shall" is used?
- Is this something that only occurs in clauses of purpose, i.e., is this occurring because "superem" is subjunctive?
There is a similar post here, but I feel it does not answer my question.
coniunctivus purpose-clause
asked 2 days ago
Kevin MillerKevin Miller
1334
New contributor
Kevin Miller is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
add a comment |
This is probably a pretty basic question, but I am new to Latin and am having trouble understanding the subjunctive.
The sentence "Pūgnāverō ut nautam superem" is translated to "I shall have fought in order that I may overcome the sailor" (according to my textbook). I understand that pūgnāverō is active, indicative, future perfect, first person, singular, which so far I would have believed to be translated as "I will have fought (already)." I am confused because my book uses the word "shall," which to me signals that it is subjunctive.
My questions are:
- Am I misunderstanding the way "shall" is used?
- Is this something that only occurs in clauses of purpose, i.e., is this occurring because "superem" is subjunctive?
There is a similar post here, but I feel it does not answer my question.
coniunctivus purpose-clause
asked 2 days ago
Kevin MillerKevin Miller
1334
New contributor
Kevin Miller is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
This is probably a pretty basic question, but I am new to Latin and am having trouble understanding the subjunctive.
The sentence "Pūgnāverō ut nautam superem" is translated to "I shall have fought in order that I may overcome the sailor" (according to my textbook). I understand that pūgnāverō is active, indicative, future perfect, first person, singular, which so far I would have believed to be translated as "I will have fought (already)." I am confused because my book uses the word "shall," which to me signals that it is subjunctive.
My questions are:
- Am I misunderstanding the way "shall" is used?
- Is this something that only occurs in clauses of purpose, i.e., is this occurring because "superem" is subjunctive?
There is a similar post here, but I feel it does not answer my question.
coniunctivus purpose-clause
coniunctivus purpose-clause
asked 2 days ago
Kevin MillerKevin Miller
1334
New contributor
Kevin Miller is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
asked 2 days ago
Kevin MillerKevin Miller
1334
New contributor
Kevin Miller is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
asked 2 days ago
Kevin MillerKevin Miller
1334
New contributor
Kevin Miller is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
asked 2 days ago
Kevin MillerKevin Miller
1334
asked 2 days ago
Kevin MillerKevin Miller
1334
1334
New contributor
Kevin Miller is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
New contributor
Kevin Miller is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
Kevin Miller is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
add a comment |
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
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oldest
votes
You're misunderstanding 'shall.' The traditional convention ('rule') in English is that 'shall' is used with first person subjects (I/we) to form the future and future perfect tenses, whereas 'will' is used for second person (you) and third person (he/she/it/they).* Your textbook is clearly following this convention. The fact that there's also a purpose clause in the sentence has nothing to do with it.
* (Except in emphatic utterances, where the future expresses strong determination to do something; in such cases, 'will' is traditionally used for the first person, 'shall' for the second and third persons.)
answered 2 days ago
cnreadcnread
8,91711124
I had no idea this was a normal convention. Thanks!
– Kevin Miller
2 days ago
add a comment |
The future-perfect is a primary tense for something that has still to be completed; "already" would refer to the past. This is a purpose/ final clause therefore, after ut, the present subjunctive is deployed--superem.
answered 2 days ago
tonytony
67918
add a comment |
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2 Answers
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2 Answers
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active
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You're misunderstanding 'shall.' The traditional convention ('rule') in English is that 'shall' is used with first person subjects (I/we) to form the future and future perfect tenses, whereas 'will' is used for second person (you) and third person (he/she/it/they).* Your textbook is clearly following this convention. The fact that there's also a purpose clause in the sentence has nothing to do with it.
* (Except in emphatic utterances, where the future expresses strong determination to do something; in such cases, 'will' is traditionally used for the first person, 'shall' for the second and third persons.)
answered 2 days ago
cnreadcnread
8,91711124
I had no idea this was a normal convention. Thanks!
– Kevin Miller
2 days ago
add a comment |
You're misunderstanding 'shall.' The traditional convention ('rule') in English is that 'shall' is used with first person subjects (I/we) to form the future and future perfect tenses, whereas 'will' is used for second person (you) and third person (he/she/it/they).* Your textbook is clearly following this convention. The fact that there's also a purpose clause in the sentence has nothing to do with it.
* (Except in emphatic utterances, where the future expresses strong determination to do something; in such cases, 'will' is traditionally used for the first person, 'shall' for the second and third persons.)
answered 2 days ago
cnreadcnread
8,91711124
I had no idea this was a normal convention. Thanks!
– Kevin Miller
2 days ago
add a comment |
You're misunderstanding 'shall.' The traditional convention ('rule') in English is that 'shall' is used with first person subjects (I/we) to form the future and future perfect tenses, whereas 'will' is used for second person (you) and third person (he/she/it/they).* Your textbook is clearly following this convention. The fact that there's also a purpose clause in the sentence has nothing to do with it.
* (Except in emphatic utterances, where the future expresses strong determination to do something; in such cases, 'will' is traditionally used for the first person, 'shall' for the second and third persons.)
answered 2 days ago
cnreadcnread
8,91711124
You're misunderstanding 'shall.' The traditional convention ('rule') in English is that 'shall' is used with first person subjects (I/we) to form the future and future perfect tenses, whereas 'will' is used for second person (you) and third person (he/she/it/they).* Your textbook is clearly following this convention. The fact that there's also a purpose clause in the sentence has nothing to do with it.
* (Except in emphatic utterances, where the future expresses strong determination to do something; in such cases, 'will' is traditionally used for the first person, 'shall' for the second and third persons.)
answered 2 days ago
cnreadcnread
8,91711124
edited 2 days ago
answered 2 days ago
cnreadcnread
8,91711124
answered 2 days ago
cnreadcnread
8,91711124
answered 2 days ago
cnreadcnread
8,91711124
8,91711124
I had no idea this was a normal convention. Thanks!
– Kevin Miller
2 days ago
add a comment |
I had no idea this was a normal convention. Thanks!
– Kevin Miller
2 days ago
I had no idea this was a normal convention. Thanks!
– Kevin Miller
2 days ago
I had no idea this was a normal convention. Thanks!
– Kevin Miller
2 days ago
add a comment |
The future-perfect is a primary tense for something that has still to be completed; "already" would refer to the past. This is a purpose/ final clause therefore, after ut, the present subjunctive is deployed--superem.
answered 2 days ago
tonytony
67918
add a comment |
The future-perfect is a primary tense for something that has still to be completed; "already" would refer to the past. This is a purpose/ final clause therefore, after ut, the present subjunctive is deployed--superem.
answered 2 days ago
tonytony
67918
add a comment |
The future-perfect is a primary tense for something that has still to be completed; "already" would refer to the past. This is a purpose/ final clause therefore, after ut, the present subjunctive is deployed--superem.
answered 2 days ago
tonytony
67918
The future-perfect is a primary tense for something that has still to be completed; "already" would refer to the past. This is a purpose/ final clause therefore, after ut, the present subjunctive is deployed--superem.
answered 2 days ago
tonytony
67918
answered 2 days ago
tonytony
67918
answered 2 days ago
tonytony
67918
answered 2 days ago
tonytony
67918
67918
add a comment |
add a comment |
Kevin Miller is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
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