Models of set theory where not every set can be linearly ordered Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara Planned maintenance scheduled April 23, 2019 at 23:30 UTC (7:30pm US/Eastern)Proving “every set can be totally ordered” without using Axiom of ChoiceCan all sets be totally ordered (not well-ordered) in ZF?How can there be genuine models of set theory?Reverse Mathematics of Well-OrderingsHow to exhibit models of set theoryZorn's lemma and maximal linearly ordered subsetsCounterexample to the Hausdorff Maximal PrincipleCan every non-empty set satisfying the axioms of $sfZF$ be totally ordered?Can Well Ordering Theorem Be Proved Without the Axiom of Power Set?the power set of every well-ordered set is well-ordered implies well orderingEvery countable linearly ordered set is similar to one of its subsetsLinearly ordering the power set of a well ordered set with ZF (without AC)

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Models of set theory where not every set can be linearly ordered



Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara
Planned maintenance scheduled April 23, 2019 at 23:30 UTC (7:30pm US/Eastern)Proving “every set can be totally ordered” without using Axiom of ChoiceCan all sets be totally ordered (not well-ordered) in ZF?How can there be genuine models of set theory?Reverse Mathematics of Well-OrderingsHow to exhibit models of set theoryZorn's lemma and maximal linearly ordered subsetsCounterexample to the Hausdorff Maximal PrincipleCan every non-empty set satisfying the axioms of $sfZF$ be totally ordered?Can Well Ordering Theorem Be Proved Without the Axiom of Power Set?the power set of every well-ordered set is well-ordered implies well orderingEvery countable linearly ordered set is similar to one of its subsetsLinearly ordering the power set of a well ordered set with ZF (without AC)










5












$begingroup$


Can anybody point me towards a model of set theory where not every set can be linearly ordered, and a corresponding proof. I have seen it claimed that in Fraenkels second permutation model that there is a set that cannot be linearly ordered, but cannot find a proof.



Essentially, I am asking for a proof that without choice sometimes the linear ordering principle fails.










share|cite|improve this question









New contributor




LGar is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.







$endgroup$







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    In the case of the Fraenkel model, would this just come down to saying that any linear ordering would have a finite support, and then we just consider a permutation of two atoms outside of said support?
    $endgroup$
    – LGar
    Apr 15 at 19:23






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Yes, by the way, a direct argument in both the models of Fraenkel is that any linear order would have a finite support and we can find a permutation that moves some things in an incongruous way.
    $endgroup$
    – Asaf Karagila
    Apr 15 at 21:35






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Possible duplicate of Proving "every set can be totally ordered" without using Axiom of Choice
    $endgroup$
    – YuiTo Cheng
    Apr 15 at 23:04










  • $begingroup$
    This question is not as far as I can tell a duplicate - that question is asking for a proof of the linear ordering principle without choice, while I was asking for a proof that the linear ordering principle can sometimes fail in the abscence of choice.
    $endgroup$
    – LGar
    Apr 16 at 0:21










  • $begingroup$
    What about Is every set linearly ordered in ZF
    $endgroup$
    – YuiTo Cheng
    Apr 16 at 0:57
















5












$begingroup$


Can anybody point me towards a model of set theory where not every set can be linearly ordered, and a corresponding proof. I have seen it claimed that in Fraenkels second permutation model that there is a set that cannot be linearly ordered, but cannot find a proof.



Essentially, I am asking for a proof that without choice sometimes the linear ordering principle fails.










share|cite|improve this question









New contributor




LGar is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.







$endgroup$







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    In the case of the Fraenkel model, would this just come down to saying that any linear ordering would have a finite support, and then we just consider a permutation of two atoms outside of said support?
    $endgroup$
    – LGar
    Apr 15 at 19:23






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Yes, by the way, a direct argument in both the models of Fraenkel is that any linear order would have a finite support and we can find a permutation that moves some things in an incongruous way.
    $endgroup$
    – Asaf Karagila
    Apr 15 at 21:35






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Possible duplicate of Proving "every set can be totally ordered" without using Axiom of Choice
    $endgroup$
    – YuiTo Cheng
    Apr 15 at 23:04










  • $begingroup$
    This question is not as far as I can tell a duplicate - that question is asking for a proof of the linear ordering principle without choice, while I was asking for a proof that the linear ordering principle can sometimes fail in the abscence of choice.
    $endgroup$
    – LGar
    Apr 16 at 0:21










  • $begingroup$
    What about Is every set linearly ordered in ZF
    $endgroup$
    – YuiTo Cheng
    Apr 16 at 0:57














5












5








5


1



$begingroup$


Can anybody point me towards a model of set theory where not every set can be linearly ordered, and a corresponding proof. I have seen it claimed that in Fraenkels second permutation model that there is a set that cannot be linearly ordered, but cannot find a proof.



Essentially, I am asking for a proof that without choice sometimes the linear ordering principle fails.










share|cite|improve this question









New contributor




LGar is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.







$endgroup$




Can anybody point me towards a model of set theory where not every set can be linearly ordered, and a corresponding proof. I have seen it claimed that in Fraenkels second permutation model that there is a set that cannot be linearly ordered, but cannot find a proof.



Essentially, I am asking for a proof that without choice sometimes the linear ordering principle fails.







set-theory axiom-of-choice






share|cite|improve this question









New contributor




LGar is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.











share|cite|improve this question









New contributor




LGar is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.









share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Apr 16 at 0:22







LGar













New contributor




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asked Apr 15 at 19:21









LGarLGar

506




506




New contributor




LGar is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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New contributor





LGar is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.






LGar is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    In the case of the Fraenkel model, would this just come down to saying that any linear ordering would have a finite support, and then we just consider a permutation of two atoms outside of said support?
    $endgroup$
    – LGar
    Apr 15 at 19:23






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Yes, by the way, a direct argument in both the models of Fraenkel is that any linear order would have a finite support and we can find a permutation that moves some things in an incongruous way.
    $endgroup$
    – Asaf Karagila
    Apr 15 at 21:35






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Possible duplicate of Proving "every set can be totally ordered" without using Axiom of Choice
    $endgroup$
    – YuiTo Cheng
    Apr 15 at 23:04










  • $begingroup$
    This question is not as far as I can tell a duplicate - that question is asking for a proof of the linear ordering principle without choice, while I was asking for a proof that the linear ordering principle can sometimes fail in the abscence of choice.
    $endgroup$
    – LGar
    Apr 16 at 0:21










  • $begingroup$
    What about Is every set linearly ordered in ZF
    $endgroup$
    – YuiTo Cheng
    Apr 16 at 0:57













  • 1




    $begingroup$
    In the case of the Fraenkel model, would this just come down to saying that any linear ordering would have a finite support, and then we just consider a permutation of two atoms outside of said support?
    $endgroup$
    – LGar
    Apr 15 at 19:23






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Yes, by the way, a direct argument in both the models of Fraenkel is that any linear order would have a finite support and we can find a permutation that moves some things in an incongruous way.
    $endgroup$
    – Asaf Karagila
    Apr 15 at 21:35






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Possible duplicate of Proving "every set can be totally ordered" without using Axiom of Choice
    $endgroup$
    – YuiTo Cheng
    Apr 15 at 23:04










  • $begingroup$
    This question is not as far as I can tell a duplicate - that question is asking for a proof of the linear ordering principle without choice, while I was asking for a proof that the linear ordering principle can sometimes fail in the abscence of choice.
    $endgroup$
    – LGar
    Apr 16 at 0:21










  • $begingroup$
    What about Is every set linearly ordered in ZF
    $endgroup$
    – YuiTo Cheng
    Apr 16 at 0:57








1




1




$begingroup$
In the case of the Fraenkel model, would this just come down to saying that any linear ordering would have a finite support, and then we just consider a permutation of two atoms outside of said support?
$endgroup$
– LGar
Apr 15 at 19:23




$begingroup$
In the case of the Fraenkel model, would this just come down to saying that any linear ordering would have a finite support, and then we just consider a permutation of two atoms outside of said support?
$endgroup$
– LGar
Apr 15 at 19:23




1




1




$begingroup$
Yes, by the way, a direct argument in both the models of Fraenkel is that any linear order would have a finite support and we can find a permutation that moves some things in an incongruous way.
$endgroup$
– Asaf Karagila
Apr 15 at 21:35




$begingroup$
Yes, by the way, a direct argument in both the models of Fraenkel is that any linear order would have a finite support and we can find a permutation that moves some things in an incongruous way.
$endgroup$
– Asaf Karagila
Apr 15 at 21:35




1




1




$begingroup$
Possible duplicate of Proving "every set can be totally ordered" without using Axiom of Choice
$endgroup$
– YuiTo Cheng
Apr 15 at 23:04




$begingroup$
Possible duplicate of Proving "every set can be totally ordered" without using Axiom of Choice
$endgroup$
– YuiTo Cheng
Apr 15 at 23:04












$begingroup$
This question is not as far as I can tell a duplicate - that question is asking for a proof of the linear ordering principle without choice, while I was asking for a proof that the linear ordering principle can sometimes fail in the abscence of choice.
$endgroup$
– LGar
Apr 16 at 0:21




$begingroup$
This question is not as far as I can tell a duplicate - that question is asking for a proof of the linear ordering principle without choice, while I was asking for a proof that the linear ordering principle can sometimes fail in the abscence of choice.
$endgroup$
– LGar
Apr 16 at 0:21












$begingroup$
What about Is every set linearly ordered in ZF
$endgroup$
– YuiTo Cheng
Apr 16 at 0:57





$begingroup$
What about Is every set linearly ordered in ZF
$endgroup$
– YuiTo Cheng
Apr 16 at 0:57











2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















9












$begingroup$

Yes, both of Fraenkel's models are examples of such models. To see why note that:



  1. In the first model, the atoms are an amorphous set. Namely, there cannot be split into two infinite sets. An amorphous set cannot be linearly ordered. To see why, note that $ain Amid atext defines a finite initial segment$ is either finite or co-finite. Assume it's co-finite, otherwise take the reverse order, then by removing finitely many elements we have a linear ordering where every proper initial segment is finite. This defines a bijection with $omega$, of course. So the set can be split into two infinite sets after all.


  2. In the second model, the atoms can be written as a countable union of pairs which do not have a choice function. If the atoms were linearly orderable in that model, then we could have defined a choice function from the pairs: take the smallest one.


For models of $sf ZF$ one can imitate Fraenkel's construction using sets-of-sets-of Cohen reals as your atoms. This can be found in Jech's "Axiom of Choice" book in Chapter 5, as Cohen's second model.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$




















    7












    $begingroup$

    An interesting example of a different kind is any model where all sets of reals have the Baire property. In any such set the quotient of $mathbb R$ by the Vitali equivalence relation is not linearly orderable. See here for a sketch.



    Examples of such models are Solovay's model where all sets of reals are Lebesgue measurable, or natural models of the axiom of determinacy, or Shelah's model from section 7 of




    MR0768264 (86g:03082a). Shelah, Saharon. Can you take Solovay's inaccessible away? Israel J. Math. 48 (1984), no. 1, 1–47.







    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$








    • 1




      $begingroup$
      Good examples, albeit significantly more complicated! :-)
      $endgroup$
      – Asaf Karagila
      Apr 15 at 21:33











    Your Answer








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    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

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    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    9












    $begingroup$

    Yes, both of Fraenkel's models are examples of such models. To see why note that:



    1. In the first model, the atoms are an amorphous set. Namely, there cannot be split into two infinite sets. An amorphous set cannot be linearly ordered. To see why, note that $ain Amid atext defines a finite initial segment$ is either finite or co-finite. Assume it's co-finite, otherwise take the reverse order, then by removing finitely many elements we have a linear ordering where every proper initial segment is finite. This defines a bijection with $omega$, of course. So the set can be split into two infinite sets after all.


    2. In the second model, the atoms can be written as a countable union of pairs which do not have a choice function. If the atoms were linearly orderable in that model, then we could have defined a choice function from the pairs: take the smallest one.


    For models of $sf ZF$ one can imitate Fraenkel's construction using sets-of-sets-of Cohen reals as your atoms. This can be found in Jech's "Axiom of Choice" book in Chapter 5, as Cohen's second model.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$

















      9












      $begingroup$

      Yes, both of Fraenkel's models are examples of such models. To see why note that:



      1. In the first model, the atoms are an amorphous set. Namely, there cannot be split into two infinite sets. An amorphous set cannot be linearly ordered. To see why, note that $ain Amid atext defines a finite initial segment$ is either finite or co-finite. Assume it's co-finite, otherwise take the reverse order, then by removing finitely many elements we have a linear ordering where every proper initial segment is finite. This defines a bijection with $omega$, of course. So the set can be split into two infinite sets after all.


      2. In the second model, the atoms can be written as a countable union of pairs which do not have a choice function. If the atoms were linearly orderable in that model, then we could have defined a choice function from the pairs: take the smallest one.


      For models of $sf ZF$ one can imitate Fraenkel's construction using sets-of-sets-of Cohen reals as your atoms. This can be found in Jech's "Axiom of Choice" book in Chapter 5, as Cohen's second model.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$















        9












        9








        9





        $begingroup$

        Yes, both of Fraenkel's models are examples of such models. To see why note that:



        1. In the first model, the atoms are an amorphous set. Namely, there cannot be split into two infinite sets. An amorphous set cannot be linearly ordered. To see why, note that $ain Amid atext defines a finite initial segment$ is either finite or co-finite. Assume it's co-finite, otherwise take the reverse order, then by removing finitely many elements we have a linear ordering where every proper initial segment is finite. This defines a bijection with $omega$, of course. So the set can be split into two infinite sets after all.


        2. In the second model, the atoms can be written as a countable union of pairs which do not have a choice function. If the atoms were linearly orderable in that model, then we could have defined a choice function from the pairs: take the smallest one.


        For models of $sf ZF$ one can imitate Fraenkel's construction using sets-of-sets-of Cohen reals as your atoms. This can be found in Jech's "Axiom of Choice" book in Chapter 5, as Cohen's second model.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        Yes, both of Fraenkel's models are examples of such models. To see why note that:



        1. In the first model, the atoms are an amorphous set. Namely, there cannot be split into two infinite sets. An amorphous set cannot be linearly ordered. To see why, note that $ain Amid atext defines a finite initial segment$ is either finite or co-finite. Assume it's co-finite, otherwise take the reverse order, then by removing finitely many elements we have a linear ordering where every proper initial segment is finite. This defines a bijection with $omega$, of course. So the set can be split into two infinite sets after all.


        2. In the second model, the atoms can be written as a countable union of pairs which do not have a choice function. If the atoms were linearly orderable in that model, then we could have defined a choice function from the pairs: take the smallest one.


        For models of $sf ZF$ one can imitate Fraenkel's construction using sets-of-sets-of Cohen reals as your atoms. This can be found in Jech's "Axiom of Choice" book in Chapter 5, as Cohen's second model.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Apr 15 at 19:30









        Asaf KaragilaAsaf Karagila

        309k33441775




        309k33441775





















            7












            $begingroup$

            An interesting example of a different kind is any model where all sets of reals have the Baire property. In any such set the quotient of $mathbb R$ by the Vitali equivalence relation is not linearly orderable. See here for a sketch.



            Examples of such models are Solovay's model where all sets of reals are Lebesgue measurable, or natural models of the axiom of determinacy, or Shelah's model from section 7 of




            MR0768264 (86g:03082a). Shelah, Saharon. Can you take Solovay's inaccessible away? Israel J. Math. 48 (1984), no. 1, 1–47.







            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$








            • 1




              $begingroup$
              Good examples, albeit significantly more complicated! :-)
              $endgroup$
              – Asaf Karagila
              Apr 15 at 21:33















            7












            $begingroup$

            An interesting example of a different kind is any model where all sets of reals have the Baire property. In any such set the quotient of $mathbb R$ by the Vitali equivalence relation is not linearly orderable. See here for a sketch.



            Examples of such models are Solovay's model where all sets of reals are Lebesgue measurable, or natural models of the axiom of determinacy, or Shelah's model from section 7 of




            MR0768264 (86g:03082a). Shelah, Saharon. Can you take Solovay's inaccessible away? Israel J. Math. 48 (1984), no. 1, 1–47.







            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$








            • 1




              $begingroup$
              Good examples, albeit significantly more complicated! :-)
              $endgroup$
              – Asaf Karagila
              Apr 15 at 21:33













            7












            7








            7





            $begingroup$

            An interesting example of a different kind is any model where all sets of reals have the Baire property. In any such set the quotient of $mathbb R$ by the Vitali equivalence relation is not linearly orderable. See here for a sketch.



            Examples of such models are Solovay's model where all sets of reals are Lebesgue measurable, or natural models of the axiom of determinacy, or Shelah's model from section 7 of




            MR0768264 (86g:03082a). Shelah, Saharon. Can you take Solovay's inaccessible away? Israel J. Math. 48 (1984), no. 1, 1–47.







            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$



            An interesting example of a different kind is any model where all sets of reals have the Baire property. In any such set the quotient of $mathbb R$ by the Vitali equivalence relation is not linearly orderable. See here for a sketch.



            Examples of such models are Solovay's model where all sets of reals are Lebesgue measurable, or natural models of the axiom of determinacy, or Shelah's model from section 7 of




            MR0768264 (86g:03082a). Shelah, Saharon. Can you take Solovay's inaccessible away? Israel J. Math. 48 (1984), no. 1, 1–47.








            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered Apr 15 at 19:39









            Andrés E. CaicedoAndrés E. Caicedo

            66.1k8160252




            66.1k8160252







            • 1




              $begingroup$
              Good examples, albeit significantly more complicated! :-)
              $endgroup$
              – Asaf Karagila
              Apr 15 at 21:33












            • 1




              $begingroup$
              Good examples, albeit significantly more complicated! :-)
              $endgroup$
              – Asaf Karagila
              Apr 15 at 21:33







            1




            1




            $begingroup$
            Good examples, albeit significantly more complicated! :-)
            $endgroup$
            – Asaf Karagila
            Apr 15 at 21:33




            $begingroup$
            Good examples, albeit significantly more complicated! :-)
            $endgroup$
            – Asaf Karagila
            Apr 15 at 21:33










            LGar is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.









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