Is the homomorphism $mathbbQGto prod M_chi_i(1)(mathbbQ)$ given by $x mapsto (rho_i(x))_i$ an isomorphism?Class function as a characterSum of squares of dimensions of irreducible characters.faithful representation related to the centerRepresentation theory and character proof$chi(g)$ group character $Rightarrow$ $chi(g^m)$ group characterOccurrences of trivial representation is equal to dimension of $vin V:varphi(g)v=v$.Why do the characters of an abelian group form a group?characters and representations of extra-special $p$-groupsIf $T$ is an algebraic torus, is there a difference between $operatornameIrr(T)$ and $X(T)$?The ring $R (G)$ in Serre's Linear Representations of Finite Groups

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Is the homomorphism $mathbbQGto prod M_chi_i(1)(mathbbQ)$ given by $x mapsto (rho_i(x))_i$ an isomorphism?


Class function as a characterSum of squares of dimensions of irreducible characters.faithful representation related to the centerRepresentation theory and character proof$chi(g)$ group character $Rightarrow$ $chi(g^m)$ group characterOccurrences of trivial representation is equal to dimension of $vin V:varphi(g)v=v$.Why do the characters of an abelian group form a group?characters and representations of extra-special $p$-groupsIf $T$ is an algebraic torus, is there a difference between $operatornameIrr(T)$ and $X(T)$?The ring $R (G)$ in Serre's Linear Representations of Finite Groups













2












$begingroup$


If we have the group algebra $mathbbQG$ and $chi_1,...,chi_n$ the irreducible characters of $G$ afforded by the representation $rho_1,...,rho_n$, is it true that the map:



$mathbbQGto prod M_chi_i(1)(mathbbQ)$ sending $xin mathbbQG$ to $(rho_i(x))_i$



is an isomorphism?



We know that $mathbbQG$ can be decomposed into simple algebras, and every simple algebra produces an irreducible character. Can I mix these facts to give a positive answer to the question?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$
















    2












    $begingroup$


    If we have the group algebra $mathbbQG$ and $chi_1,...,chi_n$ the irreducible characters of $G$ afforded by the representation $rho_1,...,rho_n$, is it true that the map:



    $mathbbQGto prod M_chi_i(1)(mathbbQ)$ sending $xin mathbbQG$ to $(rho_i(x))_i$



    is an isomorphism?



    We know that $mathbbQG$ can be decomposed into simple algebras, and every simple algebra produces an irreducible character. Can I mix these facts to give a positive answer to the question?










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$














      2












      2








      2


      1



      $begingroup$


      If we have the group algebra $mathbbQG$ and $chi_1,...,chi_n$ the irreducible characters of $G$ afforded by the representation $rho_1,...,rho_n$, is it true that the map:



      $mathbbQGto prod M_chi_i(1)(mathbbQ)$ sending $xin mathbbQG$ to $(rho_i(x))_i$



      is an isomorphism?



      We know that $mathbbQG$ can be decomposed into simple algebras, and every simple algebra produces an irreducible character. Can I mix these facts to give a positive answer to the question?










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      If we have the group algebra $mathbbQG$ and $chi_1,...,chi_n$ the irreducible characters of $G$ afforded by the representation $rho_1,...,rho_n$, is it true that the map:



      $mathbbQGto prod M_chi_i(1)(mathbbQ)$ sending $xin mathbbQG$ to $(rho_i(x))_i$



      is an isomorphism?



      We know that $mathbbQG$ can be decomposed into simple algebras, and every simple algebra produces an irreducible character. Can I mix these facts to give a positive answer to the question?







      abstract-algebra group-theory ring-theory representation-theory characters






      share|cite|improve this question















      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited yesterday









      Brahadeesh

      6,51442364




      6,51442364










      asked yesterday









      AlopisoAlopiso

      1379




      1379




















          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          4












          $begingroup$

          No. For a very simple example, let $G$ be cyclic of order 3. Then $G$ has only two irreducible representations over $mathbbQ$: the trivial representation $rho_1$, and the quotient $rho_2$ of the regular representation by the trivial representation (which is an irreducible representation of degree $2$). Your map $mathbbQGto M_1(mathbbQ)times M_2(mathbbQ)$ then cannot be surjective, since $mathbbQG$ is $3$-dimensional and $M_1(mathbbQ)times M_2(mathbbQ)$ is $5$-dimensional. What's going on here is that the subring generated by the image of $rho_2$ is not the full matrix ring $M_2(mathbbQ)$; instead it's a $2$-dimensional subring which is isomorphic to the field $mathbbQ(zeta)$ where $zeta$ is a primitive cube root of $1$.



          In general, the image of $rho_i$ is a matrix ring over the endomorphism ring $D_i$ of $rho_i$. This endomorphism ring $D_i$ is a division algebra since $rho_i$ is irreducible. If $D_i$ is just $mathbbQ$, then the image of $rho_i$ will be all of $M_chi_i(1)(mathbbQ)$, but if $D_i$ is larger than $mathbbQ$ then the image of $rho_i$ is a proper subring of $M_chi_i(1)(mathbbQ)$ (namely, the subring of elements that commute with every element of $D_i$).



          Your statement would be correct if you were working over $mathbbC$ instead of $mathbbQ$. Over $mathbbC$, there are no finite-dimensional division algebras besides $mathbbC$ itself, so the image of every irreducible representation is the full matrix ring $M_chi_i(1)(mathbbC)$. In general, the Artin-Wedderburn theorem says a semisimple ring is isomorphic to the product of the images of its irreducible representations, which are matrix rings over the endomorphism rings of those representations (and those endomorphism rings are division algebras).






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            Thanks for your time, you help me a lot :D
            $endgroup$
            – Alopiso
            yesterday


















          2












          $begingroup$

          This is not true. The group algebra of the cyclic group of order three is commutative, and decomposes as $mathbbQC_3cong mathbbQoplusmathbbQ(omega)$, where $omega$ is a primitive third root of unity.



          If you replace $mathbbQ$ with $mathbbC$, then the statement is true (in the latter case, $mathbbCC_3cong mathbbCoplusmathbbCoplusmathbbC$).






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            Why is true for $mathbbQS_3 cong mathbbQoplus mathbbQoplus M_2(mathbbQ)$?
            $endgroup$
            – Alopiso
            yesterday










          • $begingroup$
            $mathbbQC_3cong mathbbQ[x]/(x^3-1)$
            $endgroup$
            – David Hill
            yesterday










          Your Answer





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          2 Answers
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          2 Answers
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          active

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          active

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          4












          $begingroup$

          No. For a very simple example, let $G$ be cyclic of order 3. Then $G$ has only two irreducible representations over $mathbbQ$: the trivial representation $rho_1$, and the quotient $rho_2$ of the regular representation by the trivial representation (which is an irreducible representation of degree $2$). Your map $mathbbQGto M_1(mathbbQ)times M_2(mathbbQ)$ then cannot be surjective, since $mathbbQG$ is $3$-dimensional and $M_1(mathbbQ)times M_2(mathbbQ)$ is $5$-dimensional. What's going on here is that the subring generated by the image of $rho_2$ is not the full matrix ring $M_2(mathbbQ)$; instead it's a $2$-dimensional subring which is isomorphic to the field $mathbbQ(zeta)$ where $zeta$ is a primitive cube root of $1$.



          In general, the image of $rho_i$ is a matrix ring over the endomorphism ring $D_i$ of $rho_i$. This endomorphism ring $D_i$ is a division algebra since $rho_i$ is irreducible. If $D_i$ is just $mathbbQ$, then the image of $rho_i$ will be all of $M_chi_i(1)(mathbbQ)$, but if $D_i$ is larger than $mathbbQ$ then the image of $rho_i$ is a proper subring of $M_chi_i(1)(mathbbQ)$ (namely, the subring of elements that commute with every element of $D_i$).



          Your statement would be correct if you were working over $mathbbC$ instead of $mathbbQ$. Over $mathbbC$, there are no finite-dimensional division algebras besides $mathbbC$ itself, so the image of every irreducible representation is the full matrix ring $M_chi_i(1)(mathbbC)$. In general, the Artin-Wedderburn theorem says a semisimple ring is isomorphic to the product of the images of its irreducible representations, which are matrix rings over the endomorphism rings of those representations (and those endomorphism rings are division algebras).






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            Thanks for your time, you help me a lot :D
            $endgroup$
            – Alopiso
            yesterday















          4












          $begingroup$

          No. For a very simple example, let $G$ be cyclic of order 3. Then $G$ has only two irreducible representations over $mathbbQ$: the trivial representation $rho_1$, and the quotient $rho_2$ of the regular representation by the trivial representation (which is an irreducible representation of degree $2$). Your map $mathbbQGto M_1(mathbbQ)times M_2(mathbbQ)$ then cannot be surjective, since $mathbbQG$ is $3$-dimensional and $M_1(mathbbQ)times M_2(mathbbQ)$ is $5$-dimensional. What's going on here is that the subring generated by the image of $rho_2$ is not the full matrix ring $M_2(mathbbQ)$; instead it's a $2$-dimensional subring which is isomorphic to the field $mathbbQ(zeta)$ where $zeta$ is a primitive cube root of $1$.



          In general, the image of $rho_i$ is a matrix ring over the endomorphism ring $D_i$ of $rho_i$. This endomorphism ring $D_i$ is a division algebra since $rho_i$ is irreducible. If $D_i$ is just $mathbbQ$, then the image of $rho_i$ will be all of $M_chi_i(1)(mathbbQ)$, but if $D_i$ is larger than $mathbbQ$ then the image of $rho_i$ is a proper subring of $M_chi_i(1)(mathbbQ)$ (namely, the subring of elements that commute with every element of $D_i$).



          Your statement would be correct if you were working over $mathbbC$ instead of $mathbbQ$. Over $mathbbC$, there are no finite-dimensional division algebras besides $mathbbC$ itself, so the image of every irreducible representation is the full matrix ring $M_chi_i(1)(mathbbC)$. In general, the Artin-Wedderburn theorem says a semisimple ring is isomorphic to the product of the images of its irreducible representations, which are matrix rings over the endomorphism rings of those representations (and those endomorphism rings are division algebras).






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            Thanks for your time, you help me a lot :D
            $endgroup$
            – Alopiso
            yesterday













          4












          4








          4





          $begingroup$

          No. For a very simple example, let $G$ be cyclic of order 3. Then $G$ has only two irreducible representations over $mathbbQ$: the trivial representation $rho_1$, and the quotient $rho_2$ of the regular representation by the trivial representation (which is an irreducible representation of degree $2$). Your map $mathbbQGto M_1(mathbbQ)times M_2(mathbbQ)$ then cannot be surjective, since $mathbbQG$ is $3$-dimensional and $M_1(mathbbQ)times M_2(mathbbQ)$ is $5$-dimensional. What's going on here is that the subring generated by the image of $rho_2$ is not the full matrix ring $M_2(mathbbQ)$; instead it's a $2$-dimensional subring which is isomorphic to the field $mathbbQ(zeta)$ where $zeta$ is a primitive cube root of $1$.



          In general, the image of $rho_i$ is a matrix ring over the endomorphism ring $D_i$ of $rho_i$. This endomorphism ring $D_i$ is a division algebra since $rho_i$ is irreducible. If $D_i$ is just $mathbbQ$, then the image of $rho_i$ will be all of $M_chi_i(1)(mathbbQ)$, but if $D_i$ is larger than $mathbbQ$ then the image of $rho_i$ is a proper subring of $M_chi_i(1)(mathbbQ)$ (namely, the subring of elements that commute with every element of $D_i$).



          Your statement would be correct if you were working over $mathbbC$ instead of $mathbbQ$. Over $mathbbC$, there are no finite-dimensional division algebras besides $mathbbC$ itself, so the image of every irreducible representation is the full matrix ring $M_chi_i(1)(mathbbC)$. In general, the Artin-Wedderburn theorem says a semisimple ring is isomorphic to the product of the images of its irreducible representations, which are matrix rings over the endomorphism rings of those representations (and those endomorphism rings are division algebras).






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          No. For a very simple example, let $G$ be cyclic of order 3. Then $G$ has only two irreducible representations over $mathbbQ$: the trivial representation $rho_1$, and the quotient $rho_2$ of the regular representation by the trivial representation (which is an irreducible representation of degree $2$). Your map $mathbbQGto M_1(mathbbQ)times M_2(mathbbQ)$ then cannot be surjective, since $mathbbQG$ is $3$-dimensional and $M_1(mathbbQ)times M_2(mathbbQ)$ is $5$-dimensional. What's going on here is that the subring generated by the image of $rho_2$ is not the full matrix ring $M_2(mathbbQ)$; instead it's a $2$-dimensional subring which is isomorphic to the field $mathbbQ(zeta)$ where $zeta$ is a primitive cube root of $1$.



          In general, the image of $rho_i$ is a matrix ring over the endomorphism ring $D_i$ of $rho_i$. This endomorphism ring $D_i$ is a division algebra since $rho_i$ is irreducible. If $D_i$ is just $mathbbQ$, then the image of $rho_i$ will be all of $M_chi_i(1)(mathbbQ)$, but if $D_i$ is larger than $mathbbQ$ then the image of $rho_i$ is a proper subring of $M_chi_i(1)(mathbbQ)$ (namely, the subring of elements that commute with every element of $D_i$).



          Your statement would be correct if you were working over $mathbbC$ instead of $mathbbQ$. Over $mathbbC$, there are no finite-dimensional division algebras besides $mathbbC$ itself, so the image of every irreducible representation is the full matrix ring $M_chi_i(1)(mathbbC)$. In general, the Artin-Wedderburn theorem says a semisimple ring is isomorphic to the product of the images of its irreducible representations, which are matrix rings over the endomorphism rings of those representations (and those endomorphism rings are division algebras).







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited yesterday

























          answered yesterday









          Eric WofseyEric Wofsey

          190k14216348




          190k14216348











          • $begingroup$
            Thanks for your time, you help me a lot :D
            $endgroup$
            – Alopiso
            yesterday
















          • $begingroup$
            Thanks for your time, you help me a lot :D
            $endgroup$
            – Alopiso
            yesterday















          $begingroup$
          Thanks for your time, you help me a lot :D
          $endgroup$
          – Alopiso
          yesterday




          $begingroup$
          Thanks for your time, you help me a lot :D
          $endgroup$
          – Alopiso
          yesterday











          2












          $begingroup$

          This is not true. The group algebra of the cyclic group of order three is commutative, and decomposes as $mathbbQC_3cong mathbbQoplusmathbbQ(omega)$, where $omega$ is a primitive third root of unity.



          If you replace $mathbbQ$ with $mathbbC$, then the statement is true (in the latter case, $mathbbCC_3cong mathbbCoplusmathbbCoplusmathbbC$).






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            Why is true for $mathbbQS_3 cong mathbbQoplus mathbbQoplus M_2(mathbbQ)$?
            $endgroup$
            – Alopiso
            yesterday










          • $begingroup$
            $mathbbQC_3cong mathbbQ[x]/(x^3-1)$
            $endgroup$
            – David Hill
            yesterday















          2












          $begingroup$

          This is not true. The group algebra of the cyclic group of order three is commutative, and decomposes as $mathbbQC_3cong mathbbQoplusmathbbQ(omega)$, where $omega$ is a primitive third root of unity.



          If you replace $mathbbQ$ with $mathbbC$, then the statement is true (in the latter case, $mathbbCC_3cong mathbbCoplusmathbbCoplusmathbbC$).






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            Why is true for $mathbbQS_3 cong mathbbQoplus mathbbQoplus M_2(mathbbQ)$?
            $endgroup$
            – Alopiso
            yesterday










          • $begingroup$
            $mathbbQC_3cong mathbbQ[x]/(x^3-1)$
            $endgroup$
            – David Hill
            yesterday













          2












          2








          2





          $begingroup$

          This is not true. The group algebra of the cyclic group of order three is commutative, and decomposes as $mathbbQC_3cong mathbbQoplusmathbbQ(omega)$, where $omega$ is a primitive third root of unity.



          If you replace $mathbbQ$ with $mathbbC$, then the statement is true (in the latter case, $mathbbCC_3cong mathbbCoplusmathbbCoplusmathbbC$).






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          This is not true. The group algebra of the cyclic group of order three is commutative, and decomposes as $mathbbQC_3cong mathbbQoplusmathbbQ(omega)$, where $omega$ is a primitive third root of unity.



          If you replace $mathbbQ$ with $mathbbC$, then the statement is true (in the latter case, $mathbbCC_3cong mathbbCoplusmathbbCoplusmathbbC$).







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered yesterday









          David HillDavid Hill

          9,4581619




          9,4581619











          • $begingroup$
            Why is true for $mathbbQS_3 cong mathbbQoplus mathbbQoplus M_2(mathbbQ)$?
            $endgroup$
            – Alopiso
            yesterday










          • $begingroup$
            $mathbbQC_3cong mathbbQ[x]/(x^3-1)$
            $endgroup$
            – David Hill
            yesterday
















          • $begingroup$
            Why is true for $mathbbQS_3 cong mathbbQoplus mathbbQoplus M_2(mathbbQ)$?
            $endgroup$
            – Alopiso
            yesterday










          • $begingroup$
            $mathbbQC_3cong mathbbQ[x]/(x^3-1)$
            $endgroup$
            – David Hill
            yesterday















          $begingroup$
          Why is true for $mathbbQS_3 cong mathbbQoplus mathbbQoplus M_2(mathbbQ)$?
          $endgroup$
          – Alopiso
          yesterday




          $begingroup$
          Why is true for $mathbbQS_3 cong mathbbQoplus mathbbQoplus M_2(mathbbQ)$?
          $endgroup$
          – Alopiso
          yesterday












          $begingroup$
          $mathbbQC_3cong mathbbQ[x]/(x^3-1)$
          $endgroup$
          – David Hill
          yesterday




          $begingroup$
          $mathbbQC_3cong mathbbQ[x]/(x^3-1)$
          $endgroup$
          – David Hill
          yesterday

















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